WBR1147
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| Author | [[PageAuthor::Pratik Bahekar, MBBS [1]]] |
|---|---|
| Exam Type | USMLE Step 2 CK |
| Main Category | OB/GYN |
| Sub Category | Obstetrics & Gynecology |
| Prompt | A 17-year-old female presents to a pediatrician with her mother. The mother expresses concern that her daughter has never menstruated.The physician asks the mother to leave the room and begins taking a detailed history. The patient denies any history of penetrative sex, abdominal pain or STDs. The physician notes that the patient is in Tanner stage 3, and there is an absence of androgenic hair distribution. Pelvic and vaginal exam is unremarkable. What is the next best step in the management of this patient? |
| Answer A | Reassurance |
| Answer A Explanation | Incorrect! |
| Answer B | Beta hCG test |
| Answer B Explanation | Correct! |
| Answer C | Serum DHEAS and testosterone |
| Answer C Explanation | Incorrect! |
| Answer D | Serum FSH |
| Answer D Explanation | Incorrect! |
| Answer E | Serum Prolactin |
| Answer E Explanation | Incorrect! |
| Right Answer | B |
| Explanation | The first step in the management of the primary and secondary amenorrhea is pregnancy test. |
| Approved | No |
| Keyword | Primary amenorrhea |
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