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{{WBRQuestion
{{WBRQuestion
|QuestionAuthor=Anonymous (in review by Will Gibson)
|ExamType=USMLE Step 2 CK
|ExamType=USMLE Step 2 CK
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|SubCategory=Neurology, Neurology
|SubCategory=Neurology, Allergy/Immunology, Infectious Disease, Neurology
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|SubCategory=Neurology, Neurology
|SubCategory=Neurology, Allergy/Immunology, Infectious Disease, Neurology
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|SubCategory=Neurology, Neurology
|SubCategory=Neurology, Allergy/Immunology, Infectious Disease, Neurology
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|SubCategory=Neurology, Neurology
|SubCategory=Neurology, Allergy/Immunology, Infectious Disease, Neurology
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|SubCategory=Neurology, Neurology
|SubCategory=Neurology, Allergy/Immunology, Infectious Disease, Neurology
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|SubCategory=Neurology, Neurology
|SubCategory=Neurology, Allergy/Immunology, Infectious Disease, Neurology
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|SubCategory=Neurology, Neurology
|SubCategory=Neurology, Allergy/Immunology, Infectious Disease, Neurology
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|MainCategory=Internal medicine
|SubCategory=Neurology, Neurology
|SubCategory=Neurology, Allergy/Immunology, Infectious Disease, Neurology
|Prompt=A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency room and he states that for the past month he has been losing feeling and motor function of both his lower extremities. This problem has progressed until now when he cannot walk and must be carried onto the exam bed. He states that he has not had a history of trauma and the only illness was nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea 3 months earlier, although he recovered fully without medications. On exam, motor strength is 1/5 in both legs and deep tendon reflexes are impaired. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
|Prompt=A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency room and he states that for the past month he has been losing feeling and motor function of both his lower extremities. This problem has progressed until now when he cannot walk and must be carried onto the exam bed. He states that he has not had a history of trauma and the only illness was nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea 3 months earlier, although he recovered fully without medications. On exam, motor strength is 1/5 in both legs and deep tendon reflexes are impaired. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
|Explanation=Guillan-Barre is a serious neurologic disease, in which the patient must be monitored as an inpatient because of its high likelihood for the need of intubation. Infusion of IVIG or plasmaphoresis is often attempted during therapy but progression commonly occurs. Although commonly self limited, progression may progress to respiratory compromise and the need for intubation.
|Explanation=Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a serious neurologic disease, in which the patient must be monitored as an inpatient because of its high likelihood for progression to respiratory failure (mechanical ventilation is required in 30% of patients). The main modalities for disease modifying treatments are plasmaphoresis and intravenous infusion of immunoglobulin (IVIG).  These two treatments independently decrease the length of time until patients can  walk by approximately 50 percent. The mechanism of IVIG in Guillain-Barré is not fully understood, but seems function by modulating immune activation.
|AnswerA=Admission to the hospital and infusion of IVIG.
 
'''Educational Objective:'''
 
'''References:'''
 
Double-blind trial of intravenous methylprednisolone in Guillain-Barré syndrome. Guillain-Barré Syndrome Steroid Trial Group. Lancet. 1993;341(8845):586-90.
|AnswerA=Admission to the hospital and intravenous infusion of immunoglobulin.
|AnswerAExp=Correct: IVIG is an effective disease-modifying therapy for Guillain-Barré syndrome.
|AnswerB=Admission to the hospital and infusion of continuous drip dexamethasone.
|AnswerB=Admission to the hospital and infusion of continuous drip dexamethasone.
|AnswerBExp=Incorrect: Glucocorticoids, once considered a mainstay of GBS therapy, have been shown to be ineffective in randomized trials.
|AnswerC=Outpatient therapy consisting of metronidazole (Flagyl) and follow-up the next day.
|AnswerC=Outpatient therapy consisting of metronidazole (Flagyl) and follow-up the next day.
|AnswerD=Outpatient therapy consisting of a tapered regimen of prednisone orally and follow-up the next week.
|AnswerCExp=Incorrect: 
|AnswerE=Admission to the ICU and intubation when inevitable respiratory collapse occurs.
|AnswerD=Outpatient therapy consisting of a tapered regimen of oral prednison and follow-up the next week.
|AnswerDExp=Incorrect:  Because many patients will require respiratory support, the patient must be monitored closely as an inpatient.  Furthermore, glucocoritcoids have been shown to be ineffective in randomized trials.
|AnswerE=Admission to the intensive care unit and intubation when inevitable respiratory collapse occurs.
|AnswerEExp=Incorrect:  While many Guillain-Barré syndrome patients will eventually require admission to the intensive care unit (ICU), not all patients will require ICU monitoring and disease-modifying therapy should be initiated first.
|RightAnswer=A
|RightAnswer=A
|WBRKeyword=GBS, Paralysis, Guillan Barre Syndrome, Campylobacter,
|Approved=No
|Approved=No
|Answer=Admission to the hospital and infusion of continuous drip dexamethasone.,Outpatient therapy consisting of metronidazole (Flagyl) and follow-up the next day.,Outpatient therapy consisting of a tapered regimen of prednisone orally and follow-up the next week.,Admission to the ICU and intubation when inevitable respiratory collapse occurs.
|Answer=Admission to the hospital and infusion of continuous drip dexamethasone.,Outpatient therapy consisting of metronidazole (Flagyl) and follow-up the next day.,Outpatient therapy consisting of a tapered regimen of prednisone orally and follow-up the next week.,Admission to the ICU and intubation when inevitable respiratory collapse occurs.
}}
}}

Revision as of 17:26, 1 January 2014

 
Author PageAuthor::Anonymous (in review by Will Gibson)
Exam Type ExamType::USMLE Step 2 CK
Main Category MainCategory::Internal medicine
Sub Category SubCategory::Neurology, SubCategory::Allergy/Immunology, SubCategory::Infectious Disease, SubCategory::Neurology
Prompt [[Prompt::A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency room and he states that for the past month he has been losing feeling and motor function of both his lower extremities. This problem has progressed until now when he cannot walk and must be carried onto the exam bed. He states that he has not had a history of trauma and the only illness was nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea 3 months earlier, although he recovered fully without medications. On exam, motor strength is 1/5 in both legs and deep tendon reflexes are impaired. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment?]]
Answer A AnswerA::Admission to the hospital and intravenous infusion of immunoglobulin.
Answer A Explanation AnswerAExp::Correct: IVIG is an effective disease-modifying therapy for Guillain-Barré syndrome.
Answer B AnswerB::Admission to the hospital and infusion of continuous drip dexamethasone.
Answer B Explanation AnswerBExp::Incorrect: Glucocorticoids, once considered a mainstay of GBS therapy, have been shown to be ineffective in randomized trials.
Answer C AnswerC::Outpatient therapy consisting of metronidazole (Flagyl) and follow-up the next day.
Answer C Explanation AnswerCExp::Incorrect:
Answer D AnswerD::Outpatient therapy consisting of a tapered regimen of oral prednison and follow-up the next week.
Answer D Explanation AnswerDExp::Incorrect: Because many patients will require respiratory support, the patient must be monitored closely as an inpatient. Furthermore, glucocoritcoids have been shown to be ineffective in randomized trials.
Answer E AnswerE::Admission to the intensive care unit and intubation when inevitable respiratory collapse occurs.
Answer E Explanation AnswerEExp::Incorrect: While many Guillain-Barré syndrome patients will eventually require admission to the intensive care unit (ICU), not all patients will require ICU monitoring and disease-modifying therapy should be initiated first.
Right Answer RightAnswer::A
Explanation [[Explanation::Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a serious neurologic disease, in which the patient must be monitored as an inpatient because of its high likelihood for progression to respiratory failure (mechanical ventilation is required in 30% of patients). The main modalities for disease modifying treatments are plasmaphoresis and intravenous infusion of immunoglobulin (IVIG). These two treatments independently decrease the length of time until patients can walk by approximately 50 percent. The mechanism of IVIG in Guillain-Barré is not fully understood, but seems function by modulating immune activation.

Educational Objective:

References:

Double-blind trial of intravenous methylprednisolone in Guillain-Barré syndrome. Guillain-Barré Syndrome Steroid Trial Group. Lancet. 1993;341(8845):586-90.
Educational Objective:
References: ]]

Approved Approved::No
Keyword WBRKeyword::GBS, WBRKeyword::Paralysis, WBRKeyword::Guillan Barre Syndrome, WBRKeyword::Campylobacter
Linked Question Linked::
Order in Linked Questions LinkedOrder::